I don't see a major difference. I see very little reason to believe that
either of them had anything to do with any actual god. Obviously you're
a Christian agnostic. If you were a Muslim agnostic you'd be on about
how relatively credible the Qur'an was.
>> It's reported in the Qur'an and all the major Hadiths.
>
> On what alleged basis? I think it is pretty well established that
> parts of the Qur'an were composed after he was no longer with us, to
> use a quaint turn of phrase.
On the same alleged basis as most religions. Mohammed is said to have
written both of them. (Well, dictated.)
>>>> Joseph Smith has testimony from many
>>>> individuals that they had seen the golden plates.
>>> No evidence they were miraculous, though.
>> You think he actually had any golden plates?
>
> No. The people who claimed they saw them had no such evidence.
So why make a point about whether they miraculous? Isn't their
nonexistence a simpler objection?
>> Your credulity at times
>> amazes me.
>
> Your ability to jump to conclusions like this while being very
> stubborn about other kinds of inferences is quite unique in my
> experience.
You ability to avoid the implications of your statements is, sadly, by
no means unique.
>>>> The miracle of Fatima
>>>> was apparently witnessed by thousands.
>>> ...who might have thought that an especially bright and spectacular
>>> sundog was the sun.
>> So maybe Paul or his contacts were also mistaken.
>
> One can hardly be mistaken about some of the events, such as that
> which Doubting Thomas experienced.
Was said to have experienced.
>>> I've seen such a sundog, and to make it even more interesting, it was
>>> at Conyers, Georgia, where alleged apparitions of the Blessed Virgin
>>> were taking place right then and there.
>>> It was the best sundog I have ever seen, and because of the way the
>>> clouds were moving behind it, it kept changing its appearance fast
>>> enough so that some might have thought it "danced."
>>> That's not at all like the the eyewitness accounts of the aftermath of
>>> the Resurrection. Jesus was reported in the Gospel According to John
>>> that he walked together with Peter with John close by on the shores of
>>> a lake, and ate fish that had been caught from the lake.
>> Is it your claim that the apostle John actually wrote the book
>> attributed to him?
>
> I believe it was an accurate account of what he verbally told the ones
> who wrote it.
Do you have a basis for that belief?
>>>> It really isn't easy, especially
>>>> when you have second-hand accounts long after the fact, some of them of
>>>> dubious authorship.
>>> The authorship of I Corinthians 15 has never been in doubt. We have
>>> pretty reliable dates for some of those letters, too. The first, I
>>> Thessalonians, was written ca. 50 AD.
>> I refer to the entire corpus of Paul's epistles.
>
> Irrelevant.
Agreed.
>>>>>> But if
>>>>>> you don't count that as good evidence anyway, I don't see the point of
>>>>>> bringing it up.
>>>>> Because I am, technically speaking, an agnostic and definitely in
>>>>> search of the truth about these matters. Are you an atheist,
>>>>> convinced you know the truth about these matters?
>>>> To the extent that I am convinced that I know the truth about, say,
>>>> whales being the living sister group of hippos, yes.
>>> Despite the lack of any evidence that St. Paul was lying?
>>> Interesting.
>> Not so interesting as you may imagine. Paul may or may not have been
>> lying, but I don't count even his sincere account, if such it was, as
>> much evidence for the existence of the resurrection or of God. On the
>> other hand, there is very good evidence against that particular god.
>
> Such as...?
If he existed, we would expect to see considerable evidence of his
existence. The failure to see such evidence is evidence against the god
hypothesis. One could of course assume a stealth god, but that would not
fit the one being claimed.
> Another bit of food for thought: Mohammed was a warmonger, whose
> bloodthirsty deeds are not denied by Muslims, while Jesus even said,
> "Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called children of
> God."
And yet, oddly, Jesus also said "I have come not to bring peace, but a
sword." and "If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and mother,
and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life
also, he cannot be my disciple."
Some advocate of peace...
--
John S. Wilkins, Associate, Philosophy, University of Sydney
http://evolvingthoughts.net
But al be that he was a philosophre,
Yet hadde he but litel gold in cofre
No.
> If you can name any of the events to which you allude,
> please do so.
I'm alluding to reasons to think Mohammed was a messenger of God
compared to reasons to think Jesus was the son of God.
> Another bit of food for thought: Mohammed was a warmonger, whose
> bloodthirsty deeds are not denied by Muslims, while Jesus even said,
> "Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called children of
> God."
So? In order to draw any conclusions from that, you have to know what
God likes. How do you know what God likes?
>> I see very little reason to believe that
>> either of them had anything to do with any actual god. Obviously you're
>> a Christian agnostic. If you were a Muslim agnostic you'd be on about
>> how relatively credible the Qur'an was.
>
> I doubt it. Apologetics is not an Islamic specialty.
Then why all the Islamic apologetics web sites?
> Can you cite
> even one Muslim trying to argue for the existence of God the way
> Thomas Aquinas did in _Summa Contra Gentiles_ and _Summa Theologica_?
> I get the impression that it is blasphemy for a Muslim to question the
> existence of Allah, and thus very bad form to argue for Allah's
> existence.
It's certainly good form to argue that Islam is the one true religion
and the Qur'an is superior to other religious books. Isn't that close
enough?
>>>> It's reported in the Qur'an and all the major Hadiths.
>>> On what alleged basis? I think it is pretty well established that
>>> parts of the Qur'an were composed after he was no longer with us, to
>>> use a quaint turn of phrase.
>> On the same alleged basis as most religions. Mohammed is said to have
>> written both of them. (Well, dictated.)
>
> The real issue here is: what accounts are there alleging the presence
> of eyewitnesses to Mohammed's ascension into heaven? You found none
> in the Quran. Does your denial above go a lot further than that?
There are no alleged witnesses, as I discovered upon looking it up.
>>>>>> Joseph Smith has testimony from many
>>>>>> individuals that they had seen the golden plates.
>>>>> No evidence they were miraculous, though.
>>>> You think he actually had any golden plates?
>>> No. The people who claimed they saw them had no such evidence.
>> So why make a point about whether they miraculous? Isn't their
>> nonexistence a simpler objection?
>
> Simpler, but not as thorough. Even if they did exist, the "many
> individuals" [did John Smith name any of them?] could hardly have
> rendered an opinion on whether they were miraculous, or just a labor
> of love by John Smith.
Now where is Joseph Smith going to get enough gold to make his own
golden tablets? Your credulity surfaces at bizarre times and places.
>>>> Your credulity at times
>>>> amazes me.
>>> Your ability to jump to conclusions like this while being very
>>> stubborn about other kinds of inferences is quite unique in my
>>> experience.
>> You ability to avoid the implications of your statements is, sadly, by
>> no means unique.
>
> Wrong: what you are seeing above is an explanation that you
> misinterpreted the alleged "implication" above.
I'm going to stand by this one. You are actually willing to believe that
Joseph Smith might really have had golden tablets.
>>>>>> The miracle of Fatima
>>>>>> was apparently witnessed by thousands.
>>>>> ...who might have thought that an especially bright and spectacular
>>>>> sundog was the sun.
>>>> So maybe Paul or his contacts were also mistaken.
>>> One can hardly be mistaken about some of the events, such as that
>>> which Doubting Thomas experienced.
>> Was said to have experienced.
>
> I see no compelling reason to doubt the account of what Thomas said
> and did, since it might have been a hallucination to which he
> responded "My Lord and my God!"
It might have. If indeed there was such a person, and if he told this to
someone, and if it was written down. On the other hand, it could just
have been made up by the person, whoever that might have been, who wrote
the sole (as far as I know) source for the story. I see no compelling
reason to believe the account.
> [...]
>>>>>>>> But if
>>>>>>>> you don't count that as good evidence anyway, I don't see the point of
>>>>>>>> bringing it up.
>>>>>>> Because I am, technically speaking, an agnostic and definitely in
>>>>>>> search of the truth about these matters. Are you an atheist,
>>>>>>> convinced you know the truth about these matters?
>>>>>> To the extent that I am convinced that I know the truth about, say,
>>>>>> whales being the living sister group of hippos, yes.
>>>>> Despite the lack of any evidence that St. Paul was lying?
>>>>> Interesting.
>>>> Not so interesting as you may imagine. Paul may or may not have been
>>>> lying, but I don't count even his sincere account, if such it was, as
>>>> much evidence for the existence of the resurrection or of God. On the
>>>> other hand, there is very good evidence against that particular god.
>>> Such as...?
>> If he existed, we would expect to see considerable evidence of his
>> existence.
>
> Deists would disagree with you.
Deists don't believe in that particular god, but in a quite different god.
> But more to the point: as should be clear from my last reply to Rolf,
> there IS evidence, and AFAIK there is a deafening silence from the
> skeptics of the modern-day miracles attributed by the Vatican to Edith
> Stein, Mother Teresa, and John Paul II.
Are you indeed claiming that there are such miracles? What kind of
agnostic are you, exactly?
> For that matter, have you ever read any account debunking the "miracle
> of Fatima"? I have never seen even an attempt at explaining it the
> way I did. [Most of my explanation is missing above; the post where I
> made it has several specific details].
Even if we are unable to explain accounts of (alleged) odd events, how
is that evidence for the existence of the Christian god? What in his
supposed nature leads you to believe he would reveal himself through
rare, cheap tricks rather than through more general effects?
What evidence? There are so many words in print and so many of them just
that, words without substance. I like words have backing in verifiable facts
or at least be reasonable. People rising from the dead after two nights in
the grave don't meet any of my criteria.
I'm not confused about how you, or others, apply it. I'm trying to
determine if it has any meaning beyond the pejorative.
The problem, as I see it, is that this is not a bit of logic that
works both ways. The phrase "god of the gaps" refers to an error of
reason. It's about a tendency to interpret a lack of observations or
data as evidence in favor of the proposition that god exists. This is,
for obvious reasons, a mistaken assumption. "That god exists" is a
positive statement which requires positive evidence, not a lack of
evidence (unless justification can be provided for why a paucity of
data should be a prediction which follows from the statement).
Atheism, on the other hand, is a reaction to that proposition ("god
exists"). And an atheist's observation that some particular hole in
our knowledge is *not* evidence for the supernatural is a reaction to
the error of reason presented by a "god of the gaps" argument. As a
result, finding a lack of support for some particular proposition (god
exists) in a dearth of data is an expression of reason, not error.
Thus my confusion that "atheism of the gaps" should be presented as
some sort of reproach. If anything, it's a clear correction of muddled
rhetoric.
Now, if you contend that "atheism of the gaps" is an active, not just
reactive, bit of argumentation then I invite you to cast about for
instances where atheists pick examples of incomplete knowledge out of
thin air and declare, "Aha, this previously-unmentioned-by-any-theist
gap proves there is no god!" I suppose you might find one or two, but
I sincerely doubt you'll discover a ubiquity deserving of the name
"atheism of the gaps."
> Harshman's �statements aren't quite so clear cut as the second, but
> they seem to betoken the same attitude, typified by his aggressive
> reaction to my comment about the miraculous cures attributed to the
> intercession of the people named.
I'm not really concerned with what Harshman was saying. But it seems
to me his question about what you were *claiming* regarding miracles
was the part that required your attention. If you weren't claiming
anything, just refusing to repudiate something for which the evidence
was inconclusive, then you could have just said so. But you went ahead
with the silliness about "atheism of the gaps" and nose-rubbing (which
was more illogic of a similar sort).
> > My initial
> > impression is that it's like saying, "Oh yeah, well every time you see
> > no evidence for (X) you conclude that it's unreasonable to infer (X)!"
>
> > I could certainly be missing something, but I have difficulty
> > perceiving the above as a particularly stinging rebuke.
>
> That's because you spin-doctored Harshman's aggressive attitude with
> your 'initial impression'.
Like I said, I'm not talking about anything Harshman wrote. I simply
want to understand your use of the phrase in question. I think it is a
silly junior-high level "Oh, yeah, well so are you!" kind of comment
masquerading as wit. Since you are one of the few here who would both
use that phrase and be able to put together coherent sentences I'm
asking you to explain it.
> > > > I suppose not all 'miraculous' events may have a rational explanation but
> > > > even so, that doesn't mean there is a benevolent deity out there somewhere
> > > > doing it. Strange things seem to happen at times, I can only shrug and say
> > > > so what?
>
> > > That's a typical "atheism of the gaps" response. A true agnostic
> > > would NOT shrug his shoulders and say "so what?" He would try to
> > > assess the evidence in the light of everything he knows.
>
> > Again with that phrase. I don't see how it pertains.
>
> See above. �Rolf was doing some spin-doctoring of his own, and I
> reminded him of the way I [AND also the Vatican office responsible for
> the canonization of Stein and the beatification of the other two] use
> the word "miracle."
>
> You deleted that part. �I recommend that you read it again.
Why? I wasn't concerned with any of that. I deleted it because it was
immaterial.
What is this mania that suggests to you that everyone is, or should
be, interested in everything you write?
RLC
> OK, I have time for this short post.
>
> On Oct 5, 12:33 am, j...@wilkins.id.au (John S. Wilkins) wrote:
> > pnyikos <nyik...@bellsouth.net> wrote:
> > > the main reason I remain a
> > > committed Roman Catholic: I believe that religion has the best chance
> > > of keeping hope alive of an afterlife worth living.
> >
> > As I understand things, it is the sole reason for believing in an
> > afterlife.
>
> Wrong. There are other reasons having nothing to do with God or the
> existence of one.
>
> I'd rather not mention them now, because they cut both ways. To turn
> around a statement of which Unamuno was fond: "If there is no God, of
> what use is an afterlife?"
Well Miguel was not necessarily an authority. If there is an afterlife,
it might be useful to those that have it, I suppose. Even if it turns
out to be a fact of nature rather than of divine intervention.
>
> > Is that not circular reasoning?
>
> It would be, but it's a strawman.
>
OK, I await your showing that.
Of course. Also the sequel, "...as something for which we just
haven't found a natural cause yet," is relevant to something you
write below.
> (and is foolishly pejorative in and of itself).
It is inherent in the way I use the term, no more and no less. I do
try not to apply it in any other way, though I admit I did get carried
away above. His statement quoted above came in a context where he had
repeatedly denied that I was providing any kind of evidence, no matter
how weak, for the reality of miracles like the Resurrection.
> Though I doubt anyone else reading this could have missed the subtext,
> I'll rephrase for clarity: "I'm trying to determine if it has any
> *objective* meaning beyond your pejorative usage."
Unless you claim that no atheist ever tried to summarily dismiss
evidence of the supernatural that consisted of accounts of miracles,
the usage is perfectly legitimate.
> > > The problem, as I see it, is that this is not a bit of logic that
> > > works both ways. The phrase "god of the gaps" refers to an error of
> > > reason.
>
> > Not in talk.origins, where it is all too often simply used as a put-
> > down. 锟絋ake a look at the following post:
>
> I'll ignore the link, if you don't mind.
I DO mind. You are running away from the everyday realities of
talk.origins, a context in which my definition of "atheism of the
gaps" is highly appropriate.
>And how in the world is the
> above supposed to be relevant? Something can be an error of reason and
> a put-down at the same time
I think you meant to say, "Something can be pointing out an error of
reason and be a put-down at the same time." Otherwise what you say
next makes no sense:
> (in fact the error part kind of helps make
> the put-down pertinent, don't you think?).
And my point was that there was NO attempt to point out any errors of
reason by the obnoxious Randy C.
> <snip the rest of Nyikos' self-absorbed link-fest>
You even snipped the first link, to which the "self-absorbed" doesn't
even qualify as a pejorative put-down: it is simply false to label it
that way:
http://groups.google.com/group/talk.origins/msg/3ac92826f3490bb5
[...]
> > > And an atheist's observation that some particular hole in
> > > our knowledge is *not* evidence for the supernatural
>
> > That could well depend on the nature of the hole.
>
> What could "depend on the nature of the hole?"
*not* being evidence for the supernatural. Duh.
> The sentence doesn't
> even make sense without the part you snipped.
Sure it does. What you said later was just frosting on the cake:
> >锟絀f you were to
> > witness a man dying from scourging and crucifixion apparently
> > completely healed in less than two days, would you sing this same
> > song? 锟絀f so, you are no agnostic.
>
> Let's restore the "song" you were talking about. The relevant section
> finishes,
>
> "...is a reaction to the error of reason presented by a "god of the
> gaps" argument. As a result, finding a lack of support for some
> particular proposition (god exists) in a dearth of data is an
> expression of reason, not error."
>
> So, in answer to your question then: if I witnessed a man dying from
> scourging and then his subsequent crucifixion I would absolutely sing
> the same "song." I would consider any "gap" type inferences to
> unevidenced, untestable, putatively supernatural agency an error of
> reason. I would question my own senses, the acumen of those who
> concluded the man was dead, perhaps even whether there were heretofore
> unobserved biological processes at work.
Hence the sequel in my definition, "...as something for which we just
haven't found a natural cause yet."
What if the person were cremated, and his ashes scattered, and he THEN
walked among witnesses? Would you still say that this was NO evidence
for the supernatural, since to claim that it was evidence is "an error
of reason?"
> And I would most definitely
> be representing an agnostic viewpoint in doing so.
Only an agnostic viewpoint in the original Thomas Huxley sense, of one
who claims that there can never be any evidence for or against the
supernatural.
Are you sufficiently agnostic to endorse the "or against" part?
Continued in my next reply.
Peter Nyikos
> > > Thus my confusion that "atheism of the gaps" should be presented as
> > > some sort of reproach. If anything, it's a clear correction of muddled
> > > rhetoric.
>
> > Besides "atheism of the gaps" and "Darwin of the gaps," there is also
> > "Nobody of the gaps," as in,
>
> > "Nobody ever said that abiogenesis works the way you are suggesting."
>
> > ... unaccompanied by the slightest hint as to a possible scenario that
> > would improve the odds that such a person is arguing about.
Back in the 1990's I coined the acronym "SUPER" for "Speculative,
Unimagined, Posited Evolutionary Routes" for the typical treatment of
challenges to produce actual scenarios for the way abiogenesis leading
to the first prokaryotes even COULD have happened. And with "el cid"
gone, I wonder whether anyone will rise above relying on SUPERs (with
the emphasis on "Unimagined") in arguing in favor of the claim that it
all happened easily.
> Why do you have such trouble sticking to the point?
Because it is part of the realities of talk.origins, and related
somewhat to Randy C.'s performance about which you are burying your
head in the sand. Are you indifferent to almost everything that goes
on in that newsgroup?
> > > Now, if you contend that "atheism of the gaps" is an active, not just
> > > reactive, bit of argumentation then I invite you to cast about for
> > > instances where atheists pick examples of incomplete knowledge out of
> > > thin air and declare, "Aha, this previously-unmentioned-by-any-theist
> > > gap proves there is no god!"
>
> > There is plenty of that going around in these newsgroups, though
> > mostly by people whose natural habitat is alt.atheism.
>
> > What is your natural habitat, by the way?
>
> The couch, accompanied by pizza, chips and soda, with a soccer game
> on.
>
> Why? Is it time for your customary investigation of credentials?
No, of basic world-view. Your answer may or may not be highly
enligntening about that.
I gave up "my" customary investigation of credentials during my
2001-2008 posting break, and have not resumed except to poke fun at
that stuffed shirt, Richard Forrest.
Did you just make up that "your customary" off the top of your head?
Peter Nyikos
<snip>
> > > > The problem, as I see it, is that this is not a bit of logic that
> > > > works both ways. The phrase "god of the gaps" refers to an error of
> > > > reason.
>
> > > Not in talk.origins, where it is all too often simply used as a put-
> > > down. 嚙確ake a look at the following post:
>
> > I'll ignore the link, if you don't mind.
>
> I DO mind. 嚙磐ou are running away from the everyday realities of
> talk.origins, a context in which my definition of "atheism of the
> gaps" is highly appropriate.
The everyday reality of t.o is that we participate in threads. In
those threads we exchange opinions, arguments, gripes, insults, and
sometimes even manage to clarify respective positions. If I want to
answer someone's question, the quickest and easiest way to do it is to
write it there, in the thread.
Don't get me wrong. Links are useful, especially for cites to
appropriate literature. And I've used them myself. But I think you
overdo them to the point of distraction and fragmentation of the
discussion. No one is interested in clicking through to multiple links
to previous, often long-winded exchanges. Who has the time, or
interest?
> >And how in the world is the
> > above supposed to be relevant? Something can be an error of reason and
> > a put-down at the same time
>
> I think you meant to say, "Something can be pointing out an error of
> reason and be a put-down at the same time." 嚙�Otherwise what you say
> next makes no sense:
>
> > (in fact the error part kind of helps make
> > the put-down pertinent, don't you think?).
The "god of the gaps" argument is an error of reason. You've asserted
that it is also used as a put-down. The point is that those are not
mutually exclusive observations.
> And my point was that there was NO attempt to point out any errors of
> reason by the obnoxious Randy C.
>
> > <snip the rest of Nyikos' self-absorbed link-fest>
>
> You even snipped the first link, to which the "self-absorbed" doesn't
> even qualify as a pejorative put-down: it is simply false to label it
> that way:
It's true that not all of the links were to your own posts. However my
use of "self-absorbed" in this case referred to your style of linking
to previous works as would an authority pointing a student to the
fruits of his golden pen - "You can find my thoughts on that subject
laid out in detail by reading my critically acclaimed..." etc. etc. No
one is here to marvel at anyone else's grandiloquence.
I don't think, at least I hope, you don't really mean it this way. But
it's an impression that's easily taken. David Ford used to annoy quite
a few around here with a similar practice.
> http://groups.google.com/group/talk.origins/msg/3ac92826f3490bb5
>
> [...]
>
> > > > And an atheist's observation that some particular hole in
> > > > our knowledge is *not* evidence for the supernatural
>
> > > That could well depend on the nature of the hole.
>
> > What could "depend on the nature of the hole?"
>
> *not* being evidence for the supernatural. 嚙瘩uh.
>
> > The sentence doesn't
> > even make sense without the part you snipped.
>
> Sure it does. 嚙磕hat you said later was just frosting on the cake:
Read it again, the sentence is not even complete. It depends entirely
upon the clause that followed. It boggles the mind that you could take
enough meaning from that segment to find fault with.
> > >嚙瘢f you were to
> > > witness a man dying from scourging and crucifixion apparently
> > > completely healed in less than two days, would you sing this same
> > > song? 嚙瘢f so, you are no agnostic.
>
> > Let's restore the "song" you were talking about. The relevant section
> > finishes,
>
> > "...is a reaction to the error of reason presented by a "god of the
> > gaps" argument. As a result, finding a lack of support for some
> > particular proposition (god exists) in a dearth of data is an
> > expression of reason, not error."
>
> > So, in answer to your question then: if I witnessed a man dying from
> > scourging and then his subsequent crucifixion I would absolutely sing
> > the same "song." I would consider any "gap" type inferences to
> > unevidenced, untestable, putatively supernatural agency an error of
> > reason. I would question my own senses, the acumen of those who
> > concluded the man was dead, perhaps even whether there were heretofore
> > unobserved biological processes at work.
>
> Hence the sequel in my definition, "...as something for which we just
> haven't found a natural cause yet."
You weren't asking about your definition. You were asking if my
perspective regarding "gaps" arguments (restored above) would change
under your scenario.
> What if the person were cremated, and his ashes scattered, and he THEN
> walked among witnesses? 嚙磕ould you still say that this was NO evidence
> for the supernatural, since to claim that it was evidence is "an error
> of reason?"
Of course I would.
All we "know" of "the supernatural" is what short-lived, fearful,
fallible humans have come up with over several thousand years of
barely informed speculation and anxiety. Think, for a moment, about
what such a phenomenon (the supernatural) truly means - other than
natural, not of this natural reality. Then tell me how anyone could
rationally prefer mythology, no matter how pervasive, over even the
most far-fetched of natural explanations (e.g., sufficiently advanced
technology appearing to our eyes as magic). The inference is, and
always has been, an illogical leap.
In short, I would say the event you describe was amazing, stupendous,
awe-inspiring...even inexplicable. But the only way I could ever
entertain the existence of phenomena outside the natural universe
would be to experience it first-hand (even then I'd have to wonder at
my own sanity, I suppose).
> > And I would most definitely
> > be representing an agnostic viewpoint in doing so.
>
> Only an agnostic viewpoint in the original Thomas Huxley sense, of one
> who claims that there can never be any evidence for or against the
> supernatural.
It would be agnostic in the entirely common sense of "I proportion my
belief to the evidence." Belief in non-natural phenomena requires far
more evidence than mere incomprehensible, seemingly insoluble events.
We have plenty of evidence that such things have happened in the past
only to be explained later on.
I have sympathy for the sentiment that there can never be evidence for
or against the supernatural, but my own position is that the
incommensurability of natural and supernatural as concepts means we
cannot even conceive of what could be evidence for or against such a
thing. Any phenomenon we observe must, by definition, be natural. This
means we look for a natural explanation. To do otherwise would be
irrational.
RLC
Who says it happened easily?
The point, in answer to an in principle argument, is to offer an in
principle response. When someone argues that life must have a non-
natural origin because abiogenesis couldn't take place, the
appropriate response is to offer examples of how abiogenesis could
have taken place. On the other hand, when someone argues against
abiotic origins of life on the basis that there is no current
explanation, that's an obvious gap argument that deserves no response
beyond the observation that it is a logical fallacy.
And when someone says we should be looking elsewhere for explanations
of biological life (other than natural, earthly origins), the wholly
reasonable response is "Why?" There is neither the need, nor the
evidential warrant, for us to look for alternative explanations. If
you think otherwise, all of the obligation for making that case falls
to you.
> > Why do you have such trouble sticking to the point?
>
> Because it is part of the realities of talk.origins, and related
> somewhat to Randy C.'s performance about which you are burying your
> head in the sand. �Are you indifferent to almost everything that goes
> on in that newsgroup?
Considering the volume of posts in this group, and the time I have to
spend, I am of necessity indifferent to most of it.
> > > > Now, if you contend that "atheism of the gaps" is an active, not just
> > > > reactive, bit of argumentation then I invite you to cast about for
> > > > instances where atheists pick examples of incomplete knowledge out of
> > > > thin air and declare, "Aha, this previously-unmentioned-by-any-theist
> > > > gap proves there is no god!"
>
> > > There is plenty of that going around in these newsgroups, though
> > > mostly by people whose natural habitat is alt.atheism.
>
> > > What is your natural habitat, by the way?
>
> > The couch, accompanied by pizza, chips and soda, with a soccer game
> > on.
>
> > Why? Is it time for your customary investigation of credentials?
>
> No, of basic world-view. �Your answer may or may not be highly
> enligntening about that.
I gave you some of that in my answer to your other post. And I would
be happy to further enlighten you about any of my beliefs.
> I gave up "my" customary investigation of credentials during my
> 2001-2008 posting break, and have not resumed except to poke fun at
> that stuffed shirt, Richard Forrest.
That would be a more convincing case had I not recently seen you
asking others for their bona fides. I believe Mark Isaak was one.
RLC
Sure. But once you really do some reading in depth, patterns emerge.
And one of those patterns is a "see no evil, hear no evil, speak no
evil" attitude towards people who misuse expressions, such as "god of
the gaps", as long as they are on the "right" side of various
debates. [And it almost goes without saying that almost all, if not
all, beneficiaries of the "three chimps" attitude are on the "right"
side of the fundamental issues.]
In fact, if you HAD clicked on the fourth link I provided, you would
have seen yourself displaying that very "three chimps" attitude
towards the obnoxious Randy C. See link below.
[...]
> > >And how in the world is the
> > > above supposed to be relevant? Something can be an error of reason and
> > > a put-down at the same time
>
> > I think you meant to say, "Something can be pointing out an error of
> > reason and be a put-down at the same time." Otherwise what you say
> > next makes no sense:
>
> > > (in fact the error part kind of helps make
> > > the put-down pertinent, don't you think?).
>
> The "god of the gaps" argument is an error of reason. You've asserted
> that it is also used as a put-down. The point is that those are not
> mutually exclusive observations.
Of course, and that also applies to the analogues which I have been
using.
> > And my point was that there was NO attempt to point out any errors of
> > reason by the obnoxious Randy C.
If you are willing to accept this, then there is no longer a need for
the link to this particular post. But I kept it in at the end of this
post, pending your reaction.
> > > <snip the rest of Nyikos' self-absorbed link-fest>
>
> > You even snipped the first link, to which the "self-absorbed" doesn't
> > even qualify as a pejorative put-down: it is simply false to label it
> > that way:
>
> It's true that not all of the links were to your own posts. However my
> use of "self-absorbed" in this case referred to your style of linking
> to previous works
The following is apparently not meant to refer to me, given your
subsequent disclaimer:
>as would an authority pointing a student to the
> fruits of his golden pen - "You can find my thoughts on that subject
> laid out in detail by reading my critically acclaimed..." etc. etc. No
> one is here to marvel at anyone else's grandiloquence.
If you HAD clicked on those links, you would have seen nothing of the
sort. Only two of those four links had *anything* by me on it, and
one of them just had me talking sci.bio.paleontology shop, followed by
Randy C. butting in.
In fact, on that one you would have seen an example of one of the
fruits of YOUR golden pen backing up the Randy C. in one of his
interminable "god of the gaps" put-downs, aimed at me out of the blue
and having absolutely nothing to do with what I had been discussing
with Harshman:
http://groups.google.com/group/talk.origins/msg/8d4a3b1661e7925c
The other post that featured something from me was an example of me
"fighting fire with fire" by countering Randy C.'s misuses with
multiple uses of "Darwin of the gaps", an expression I coined for the
occasion.
> I don't think, at least I hope, you don't really mean it this way.
Mean WHAT this way? Certainly not the text that accompanied those
four links, I hope.
>But it's an impression that's easily taken.
By whom besides you? Who else would get such impressions from someone
using links to document what he is saying?
And would even YOU get such an impression if I were on the "right"
side of such isssues as abiogenesis and atheism from your POV?
> David Ford used to annoy quite
> a few around here with a similar practice.
Careful -- Paul Gans might accuse you of starting a list. :-)
> >http://groups.google.com/group/talk.origins/msg/3ac92826f3490bb5
Continued in next reply.
Peter Nyikos
Seemingly pointless grammatical nitpick noted.
>It depends entirely
> upon the clause that followed. It boggles the mind that you could take
> enough meaning from that segment to find fault with.
Your mind is way too easily boggled. Despite it not being a complete
sentence, it includes a completely self-contained assertion. One to
which you return with amazing force at the end of this post. [That
wasn't a complete sentence either. Make the most of it.]
> > > > If you were to
> > > > witness a man dying from scourging and crucifixion apparently
> > > > completely healed in less than two days, would you sing this same
> > > > song? If so, you are no agnostic.
>
> > > Let's restore the "song" you were talking about. The relevant section
> > > finishes,
>
> > > "...is a reaction to the error of reason presented by a "god of the
> > > gaps" argument. As a result, finding a lack of support for some
> > > particular proposition (god exists) in a dearth of data is an
> > > expression of reason, not error."
>
> > > So, in answer to your question then: if I witnessed a man dying from
> > > scourging and then his subsequent crucifixion I would absolutely sing
> > > the same "song." I would consider any "gap" type inferences to
> > > unevidenced, untestable, putatively supernatural agency an error of
> > > reason. I would question my own senses, the acumen of those who
> > > concluded the man was dead, perhaps even whether there were heretofore
> > > unobserved biological processes at work.
>
> > Hence the sequel in my definition, "...as something for which we just
> > haven't found a natural cause yet."
>
> You weren't asking about your definition.
So what? You gave a very nice illustrative example of the meaning of
that sequel with your "perhaps even...".
>You were asking if my
> perspective regarding "gaps" arguments (restored above) would change
> under your scenario.
> > What if the person were cremated, and his ashes scattered, and he THEN
> > walked among witnesses? Would you still say that this was NO evidence
> > for the supernatural, since to claim that it was evidence is "an error
> > of reason?"
>
> Of course I would.
This fits in perfectly with my definition of "atheism of the gaps,"
including what YOU called a pejorative put-down "...simply be
dismissed..."
> All we "know" of "the supernatural" is what short-lived, fearful,
> fallible humans have come up with over several thousand years of
> barely informed speculation and anxiety.
Another very revealing comment. All we know of reallity is given to
us by our senses, and yet many accounts of miracles are just that:
people ostensibly reporting what their senses told them.
> Think, for a moment, about
> what such a phenomenon (the supernatural) truly means - other than
> natural, not of this natural reality.
What's so bad about that? The supernatural has its own very "natural"
rules according to various well-thought-out forms of Christian
theology.
>Then tell me how anyone could
> rationally prefer mythology, no matter how pervasive, over even the
> most far-fetched of natural explanations (e.g., sufficiently advanced
> technology appearing to our eyes as magic). The inference is, and
> always has been, an illogical leap.
>
> In short, I would say the event you describe was amazing, stupendous,
> awe-inspiring...even inexplicable. But the only way I could ever
> entertain the existence of phenomena outside the natural universe
> would be to experience it first-hand (even then I'd have to wonder at
> my own sanity, I suppose).
Another highly revealing comment.
> > > And I would most definitely
> > > be representing an agnostic viewpoint in doing so.
>
> > Only an agnostic viewpoint in the original Thomas Huxley sense, of one
> > who claims that there can never be any evidence for or against the
> > supernatural.
>
> It would be agnostic in the entirely common sense of "I proportion my
> belief to the evidence."
Baloney. Your attitude to the purely hypothetical examples I gave
bespeaks an atheism that is not all that far from solipsism.
> Belief in non-natural phenomena requires far
> more evidence than mere incomprehensible, seemingly insoluble events.
> We have plenty of evidence that such things have happened in the past
> only to be explained later on.
I suggest your understanding of science is very sketchy, if you lump
the last example I gave in with these things that you speak of in such
vague generality. Name some of them, and the difference will be
readily apparent.
> I have sympathy for the sentiment that there can never be evidence for
> or against the supernatural, but my own position is that the
> incommensurability of natural and supernatural as concepts means we
> cannot even conceive of what could be evidence for or against such a
> thing. Any phenomenon we observe must, by definition, be natural. This
> means we look for a natural explanation. To do otherwise would be
> irrational.
>
> RLC
A perfect "atheism of the gaps" response.
Peter Nyikos
Hmm...I don't remember anything like that, so I'm going to say you're
just full of it.
Prove me wrong. Show me right here in this thread. Quote me.
I'm not interested in wasting my time trying to substantiate your
predilection for misinterpretation of motives.
> > > >And how in the world is the
> > > > above supposed to be relevant? Something can be an error of reason and
> > > > a put-down at the same time
>
> > > I think you meant to say, "Something can be pointing out an error of
> > > reason and be a put-down at the same time." Otherwise what you say
> > > next makes no sense:
>
> > > > (in fact the error part kind of helps make
> > > > the put-down pertinent, don't you think?).
>
> > The "god of the gaps" argument is an error of reason. You've asserted
> > that it is also used as a put-down. The point is that those are not
> > mutually exclusive observations.
>
> Of course, and that also applies to the analogues which I have been
> using.
No, it doesn't, because "atheism of the gaps" is not an error of
reason. But of course you're free to continue using as a put-down.
While you're at it, go ahead and jeer at others for being "rational,"
too.
> > > And my point was that there was NO attempt to point out any errors of
> > > reason by the obnoxious Randy C.
>
> If you are willing to accept this, then there is no longer a need for
> the link to this particular post. �But I kept it in at the end of this
> post, pending your reaction.
I'm not willing to accept anything that requires I spend my time
sifting through old posts in search of evidence for your
misperceptions. I've too often seen you accuse others of designs that,
as far as I could tell, were far from their intent.
<snip more irrelevant, fretful Nyikos linkage>
There's no need for the references to old injustices, perceived
slights etc. Why do you spend so much time stewing over past
squabbles? Just try to deal with the issues, in the thread where they
are discussed. I don't see why that should be so hard.
RLC
> > > The everyday reality of t.o is that we participate in threads. In
> > > those threads we exchange opinions, arguments, gripes, insults, and
> > > sometimes even manage to clarify respective positions.
>
> > Sure. �But once you really do some reading in depth, patterns emerge.
> > And one of those patterns is a "see no evil, hear no evil, speak no
> > evil" attitude towards people who misuse expressions, such as "god of
> > the gaps", as long as they are on the "right" side of various
> > debates. �[And it almost goes without saying that almost all, if not
> > all, beneficiaries of the "three chimps" attitude are on the "right"
> > side of the fundamental issues.]
>
> > In fact, if you HAD clicked on the fourth link I provided, you would
> > have seen yourself displaying that very "three chimps" attitude
> > towards the obnoxious Randy C. �See link below.
>
> Hmm...I don't remember anything like that, so I'm going to say you're
> just full of it.
>
> Prove me wrong. Show me right here in this thread. Quote me.
_____________excerpt, with context added at the beginning______
> > > I was referring to the old-fashioned Amphibia as in "The Age of
> > > Amphibians". Right now (see the website above) it is split up into
> > > no less than thirteen (13) clades, only one of which is the cladists'
> > > Amphibia.
> > > Peter Nyikos
> > > > >>> So, where do you get your information that Aves is not considered a
> > > > >>> valid taxon. It's a clade, isn't it?
> > > > >> Sure is.
> > > > > I guess we'll just have to wait and see what Chris Thompson had in
> > > > > mind.
> > > > Sure.
[Randy C.:]
> > Do you understand that ID is nothing but the "God of the Gaps" yet?
> The "God of the gaps" charge suggests that someone is using God to
> fill in the gaps of scientific knowledge of natural causes,as if
> natural causes were always adequate to explain phenomena. But
> intelligent design is not used to fill in gaps of knowledge of natural
> causes,
That is exactly what it is used for.
> but to propose that organisms are indeed designed by intelligence,
And as such one might call it a passive God of the Gaps argument in
that it covers the argument from ignorance with a supposed alternative
explanation. But that explanation is vacuous. Yes, "Intellligent
design" proposes, but it does not investigate. ID nibbles around the
edges of our understanding of particular biological phenomena, but
offers no new testable hypotheses or mechanisms of its own. There is
some room for quibble depending upon how broadly you define it, but it
is, for all intents and purposes, a God of the Gaps argument.
============== end of excerpt
from http://groups.google.com/group/talk.origins/msg/8d4a3b1661e7925c
The facts are simple: you saw how Randy C. came out of the blue with
his ignorant fantasies about ID:
http://groups.google.com/group/talk.origins/msg/ef6a767c2e851730?dmode=source
And yet you only corrected his correcter. You may claim total
innocence of any good will towards Randy C., but I doubt that you can
make a credible case for that.
By the way, what you wrote in that last paragraph in that excerpt was
born of ignorance. I clearly indicated what was wrong with it in the
post with the four links, but you don't seem to be interested in being
enlightened.
> I'm not interested in wasting my time trying to substantiate your
> predilection for misinterpretation of motives.
Alleged predeliction, you mean. Often alleged, yet -- can you find a
single concrete example the allegers actually made a case for in the
last decade?
[...]
> > > The "god of the gaps" argument is an error of reason. You've asserted
> > > that it is also used as a put-down. The point is that those are not
> > > mutually exclusive observations.
>
> > Of course, and that also applies to the analogues which I have been
> > using.
>
> No, it doesn't, because "atheism of the gaps" is not an error of
> reason.
It is one of a different sort than the god of the gaps; rather than
trying to argue for a cause, it dismisses the need to investigate any
alleged manifestation of the supernatural by simply claiming that it
is not and cannot constitute evidence. You have given a very striking
demonstration of it in this thread.
[snip several put-downs of unspecified actions by me, ending in a
general comment about why it should not be so hard to stick to on-
topic discussion]
Peter Nyikos
Hey, call me crazy, but I'm funny that way. I prefer people respond to
what I say, rather than what they want to hear.
<snip>
> > > > > If you were to
> > > > > witness a man dying from scourging and crucifixion apparently
> > > > > completely healed in less than two days, would you sing this same
> > > > > song? If so, you are no agnostic.
>
> > > > Let's restore the "song" you were talking about. The relevant section
> > > > finishes,
>
> > > > "...is a reaction to the error of reason presented by a "god of the
> > > > gaps" argument. As a result, finding a lack of support for some
> > > > particular proposition (god exists) in a dearth of data is an
> > > > expression of reason, not error."
>
> > > > So, in answer to your question then: if I witnessed a man dying from
> > > > scourging and then his subsequent crucifixion I would absolutely sing
> > > > the same "song." I would consider any "gap" type inferences to
> > > > unevidenced, untestable, putatively supernatural agency an error of
> > > > reason. I would question my own senses, the acumen of those who
> > > > concluded the man was dead, perhaps even whether there were heretofore
> > > > unobserved biological processes at work.
<snip>
> > > What if the person were cremated, and his ashes scattered, and he THEN
> > > walked among witnesses? Would you still say that this was NO evidence
> > > for the supernatural, since to claim that it was evidence is "an error
> > > of reason?"
>
> > Of course I would.
>
> This �fits in perfectly with my definition of "atheism of the gaps,"
> including what YOU called a pejorative put-down "...simply be
> dismissed..."
It has nothing to do with "dismissing" anything. There never was
anything to be considered within the context of evidence for the
supernatural. It's not even a concept that has any rational meaning.
Neither atheists in general, nor myself in this particular instance,
"dismiss" evidence. Such a thing requires that there be evidence to be
considered. Until you demonstrate that there is some reason your (or
anyone else's) personal mythology should qualify as a basis for
inferring a causal linkage between natural phenomena and putative
supernatural agency, there is no rational attitude but to conclude "We
don't know enough."
It is, of course, your prerogative to call this approach "atheism of
the gaps." As I said at the start, I was just trying to see if you
could invest it with some actual meaning beyond a schoolyard retort.
So far as I can tell, you cannot.
> > All we "know" of "the supernatural" is what short-lived, fearful,
> > fallible humans have come up with over several thousand years of
> > barely informed speculation and anxiety.
>
> Another very revealing comment.
One can only hope you're open to revelation.
> �All we know of reallity is given to
> us by our senses, and yet many accounts of miracles are just that:
> people ostensibly reporting what their senses told them.
Okay.
> > Think, for a moment, about
> > what such a phenomenon (the supernatural) truly means - other than
> > natural, not of this natural reality.
>
> What's so bad about that? �The supernatural has its own very "natural"
> rules according to various well-thought-out forms of Christian
> theology.
What rationale is there that should give us even a moment's
contemplation that any theology, well-thought out or not, Christian or
not, is in any way connected to a reality other than the one we
inhabit? What could possibly influence your reasoning apparatus to
believe that ancient products of an imaginative and frightened
intellect could reliably inform you about "rules" regarding the
supernatural?
The assumptions inherent in such argumentation are multiple and
staggering.
> >Then tell me how anyone could
> > rationally prefer mythology, no matter how pervasive, over even the
> > most far-fetched of natural explanations (e.g., sufficiently advanced
> > technology appearing to our eyes as magic). The inference is, and
> > always has been, an illogical leap.
>
> > In short, I would say the event you describe was amazing, stupendous,
> > awe-inspiring...even inexplicable. But the only way I could ever
> > entertain the existence of phenomena outside the natural universe
> > would be to experience it first-hand (even then I'd have to wonder at
> > my own sanity, I suppose).
>
> Another highly revealing comment.
Unlike your response.
> > > > And I would most definitely
> > > > be representing an agnostic viewpoint in doing so.
>
> > > Only an agnostic viewpoint in the original Thomas Huxley sense, of one
> > > who claims that there can never be any evidence for or against the
> > > supernatural.
>
> > It would be agnostic in the entirely common sense of "I proportion my
> > belief to the evidence."
>
> Baloney. �Your attitude to the purely hypothetical examples I gave
> bespeaks an atheism that is not all that far from solipsism.
That's about as far from sensible as is my position from solipsism.
You don't even realize the huge and completely unwarranted premises
you take for granted. Think of it this way: every time you're tempted
to think of something as possible evidence for religious supernatural
realms, substitute "Magic." Here's an example,
"What if the person were cremated, and his ashes scattered, and he
THEN walked among witnesses? Would you still say that this was NO
evidence for Magic, since to claim that it was evidence is "an error
of reason?""
Sounds silly, doesn't it? The reason is it *is* silly. Despite the
fact that supernatural assumptions are so incorporated into your
worldview that you get all verklempt when someone questions them, the
truth is that for the purposes of naturalistic investigation (and
discussion) there is no qualitative difference between God and magic.
The point is that it doesn't matter if a huge booming figure of
whatever everyone thinks of as their god appears simultaneously in the
skies above every outpost of humanity across this planet, there is
still no logical warrant for connecting such an effect with non-
natural cause. No matter how far-fetched a natural explanation is
proposed it will always be preferable, to an atheist or anyone
thinking rationally, to a supernatural explanation.
> > Belief in non-natural phenomena requires far
> > more evidence than mere incomprehensible, seemingly insoluble events.
> > We have plenty of evidence that such things have happened in the past
> > only to be explained later on.
>
> I suggest your understanding of science is very sketchy, if you lump
> the last example I gave in with these things that you speak of in such
> vague generality. �Name some of them, and the difference will be
> readily apparent.
How tediously like you to begin questioning someone's capacity as soon
as you're rhetorically uncomfortable.
The example you gave will serve nicely to make the point. Let's look
at it again,
"What if the person were cremated, and his ashes scattered, and he
THEN walked among witnesses? Would you still say that this was NO
evidence for the supernatural, since to claim that it was evidence is
"an error of reason?""
I realize that it feels to you as if this scenario is so extreme in
probability, and at the same time so poignantly expressive of a
passionately held parable, that should such a thing be witnessed it
absolutely *must* be taken as evidence for the verity of the Christian
faith in a supernatural reality.
But improbable things happen all of the time. And sometimes even
extremely improbable things happen. And how likely is it that
something extremely improbable should happen that also appears to
coincide with a religious account of supernatural phenomena? I don't
even know how to calculate it. But there are, must be, and always will
be in a law-like universe, natural explanations of natural phenomena,
regardless of how improbable (yes, this is one of the few, perhaps
only, things I take on faith...it's, y'know, science).
Consider Burkhard's quip about twin brothers. Besides being clever,
it's also a perfectly reasonable, even mundane, possible explanation
for something seemingly remarkable. As for your scenario above, how
about large scale sleight-of-hand a la David Copperfield? How about
some tasteless, odorless hallucinogenic compound in the air that
stimulates neurotransmitters and causes a dream state? Hell, how about
some alien civilization that understands our iconography cloning a
duplicate and simulating a resurrection (for whatever reason)?
It doesn't matter how looney these explanations sound to you. What
matters is that we're talking about natural explanations for natural
phenomena, rather than the casuistic category error of inferring
supernatural cause.
> > I have sympathy for the sentiment that there can never be evidence for
> > or against the supernatural, but my own position is that the
> > incommensurability of natural and supernatural as concepts means we
> > cannot even conceive of what could be evidence for or against such a
> > thing. Any phenomenon we observe must, by definition, be natural. This
> > means we look for a natural explanation. To do otherwise would be
> > irrational.
> A perfect "atheism of the gaps" response.
A predictable, and somewhat embarrassing, evasion.
RLC
This has nothing to do with will, good or bad.
Randy C. and I differed only in the nuances of how we phrased things.
ID is substantially a god of the gaps enterprise. It's arguments
depend, to a large degree, upon "things evolution cannot explain." He
was correct, you were incorrect (accounting for the fact that at that
time I was perhaps unaware of the peculiar way you define ID to
include your perspective).
Your "three chimps" accusation assumes the truth of your position in
that thread. I didn't agree with your position, then, nor do I agree
with it now. Next time try to produce a quote that actually
substantiates your claims.
And before this goes any farther, let me be clear that I'm not going
to indulge your thread-bulging lust for whinging and wheedling over
who-said-what-when and who-did-what-to-whom. I'm already weary at
having indulged that tendency this far.
> By the way, what you wrote in that last paragraph in that excerpt was
> born of ignorance. �I clearly indicated what was wrong with it in the
> post with the four links, but you don't seem to be interested in being
> enlightened.
Not by any post of yours with four links, that's for sure.
> > I'm not interested in wasting my time trying to substantiate your
> > predilection for misinterpretation of motives.
>
> Alleged predeliction, you mean. Often alleged, yet -- can you find a
> single concrete example the allegers actually made a case for in the
> last decade?
Well, no, not yet, but let me spend multiple hours and sleepless
nights researching the archives over the last ten years so that I can
find "concrete examples" for you (yes, that was sarcasm).
Good lord, do you listen to yourself?
> > > > The "god of the gaps" argument is an error of reason. You've asserted
> > > > that it is also used as a put-down. The point is that those are not
> > > > mutually exclusive observations.
>
> > > Of course, and that also applies to the analogues which I have been
> > > using.
>
> > No, it doesn't, because "atheism of the gaps" is not an error of
> > reason.
>
> It is one of a different sort than the god of the gaps; rather than
> trying to argue for a cause, it dismisses the need to investigate any
> alleged manifestation of the supernatural by simply claiming that it
> is not and cannot constitute evidence. �You have given a very striking
> demonstration of it in this thread.
Thank you. But the problem for your perspective is you haven't
demonstrated that this approach is in any way flawed or illogical.
After you've done that, I'll change my position and agree that
"atheism of the gaps" is an error of reason.
<snip>
RLC