> > Why should the IRS treat free lunch on liberty "anti-tax" groups any
> > differently?
> Then why are Obama and IRS officials calling it a mistake
> which "will not be tolerated"?
Most American administrations don't really reason like a logician.
They simply triangulate between a lot of loud voices, in and outside
of the administration. Since the rich control all the loud voices
Obama is always triangulating between what the rich want and what the
rich want. Not an interesting triangulation -- despotisms aren't
interesting -- but Obama will use that to rationalize it's the only
choice or even the will of the People.
But there's only one olive branch that the teabaggers will accept and
that's tax cuts on the rich.
Clearly the IRS should not generally single out any administration's
political enemies. But when the political enemy wants to abolish the
IRS, why should the IRS be any different than Israel when a Mideast
despotism says it wants to abolish Israel?
Those groups can be reasonably assumed to have a higher rate of
cheating on taxes than others.
Why is it OK for the SPLC to keep lists of "patriotic constitutional
militias" but not the gummint?
Lists are nothing more than free speech.
Why is it OK for the Koch Bros, which can be effectively treated as
the richest man on earth, to have free speech but not the gummint?
That would have been perfectly good with the richest man on earth in
1776.
George III gets free speech but not Jefferson's elected gummint.
Bret Cahill