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Language Pills

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tg

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May 15, 2008, 3:45:38 PM5/15/08
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“In view of the substance and significance of the fundamental
constitutional right to form a family relationship,” Chief Justice
Ronald M. George wrote of marriage for the majority, “the California
Constitution properly must be interpreted to guarantee this basic
civil right to all Californians, whether gay or heterosexual, and to
same-sex couples as well as to opposite-sex couples.”

So, this started me wondering why males and females are 'opposite'.
"Different-sex couples" sounds more correct.

What does "opposite" mean?

-tg

Ed

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May 15, 2008, 3:56:53 PM5/15/08
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"Opposite-sex" has meaning in a context where there are only two
sexes. It loses it's meaning when there are more than two.

tg

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May 15, 2008, 5:07:43 PM5/15/08
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No, that's what I was questioning. Nothing about 'only two' requires
that the two be 'opposite'.

-tg

Pop Fly

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May 15, 2008, 11:36:26 PM5/15/08
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On May 15, 3:45 pm, tg <tgdenn...@earthlink.net> wrote:

Like every common English word, it has several meanings. English
doesn't come in pills, it comes in fluffy cotton balls :-)

Mirriam-Webster's definition #4 applies here:
4: being the other of a pair that are corresponding or complementary
in position, function, or nature <members of the opposite sex>
Another example: "Chess queens are set up on squares of opposite
color."

I know your point is that the two sexes aren't contrary. Only one of
them is contrary - the [urk ack, you'll have to make up your own mind
which] :p

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