In article
<
d16abcad-b0c0-46b5...@k20g2000vbk.googlegroups.com>,
Yes it was. In fact, it was your question. You asked, "Why would you
list 'Case' as a thing separate from 'Thematic Roles'?"
> Peter O appears to be trying to assemble
> a universal set of categories,
No he wasn't. He was trying to assemble a "complete list of every
type". That's a very different thing, a difference that was already
pointed out to you by Harlan (who you ignored), and by Peter himself
(who you ridiculed), and would be obvious to you if you had more
interest in paying attention to what people were actually saying,
rather than in trying find an argument to start.
> and Agreement and Morphological Case
> are clearly not universal.
If it's so clear, then clearly he must not be talking about
universals. Why would you assume he was? Especially given that
"universal" appears nowhere in his message, but "complete list of
every type" does.
how on earth could get from "complete list of every type" to
"universal"? Would you think a "complete list of every type" of
fricative is a "universal" set of fricatives that every language has?
Certainly not, so why would you think so here?
> > > -- quite exceptionally in English,
> > > where the vast majority of nominals do _not_ exhibit inflection for
> > > subjective and objective case.
> >
> > I'm not sure I understand why you're mentioning this. �Do you think
> > that "exceptional" case isn't an example of case?
> >
> > > By using them in your examples of, ostensibly, pairs of complementary
> > > verbs, you muddle your example.
> >
> > The point of this pair was to show that two different verbs can
> > express the same semantic proposition with the same semantic roles,
> > but with different cases. �It's parallel to the passive example, but
> > using two different lexical items in the active, rather than the same
> > lexical item in two different voices.
> >
> > As I suspected, your comment would have gone better with the next
> > pair, and I answered your comment there (and you didn't respond).
>
> I answered it the first time it appeared.
You gave no response to the issue of ambiguity (your use of
"complementary verbs" in your response pretty much guarantees you
aren't talking about ambiguity). Just look:
> > > > > > And verbs that alternate on their own which syntactic position a
> > > > > > given
> > > > > > semantic role is assigned:
> >
> > > > > > � � �He worries about her.
> > > > > > � � �She worries him.
> >
> > > > If your previous comment was supposed to go here, then my answer would
> > > > have been:
> >
> > > > Sometimes languages have ambiguity, such as in the sentence "he felt
> > > > hot", where the experiencer of feeling the heat might be the subject
> > > > "he" or might be some unexpressed entity who is touching him, in which
> > > > case, he might not even being experiencing hot, which is common with
> > > > people who are running a fever but experience coldness.
The preceding is the part that you didn't respond to.
Sure, and as a phonologist, I can come up with such examples off the
top of my head for most kinds of phonological phenomena.
But this is a discussion about the syntax-semantics interface, and I
am neither a syntactician nor a semanticist, let alone both. My
memorized cache of non-English examples relevant to this discussion is
much more limited.
> These days, phonologists behave as though phonemic systems are simply
> somehow just "given," without even a paragraph about how one goes
> about determining the phonemes of a language.
Obvious red herring alert! Variations in the alignment between case
and semantic roles (the current topic) has pretty much nothing at all
to do with how anyone's particular pet phonological theory organizes a
language's sounds into abstract units.