convertable
mm
Is there some rule?
--
Posters should say where they live, and for which area
they are asking questions. I was born and then lived in
Western Pa. 10 years
Indianapolis 7 years
Chicago 6 years
Brooklyn, NY 12 years
Baltimore 26 years
mm
contrex
> Why is the word convertible and not convertable?
Because of the Latin word which passed via French into English. The -
ible or -able endings can be traced right back to Latin. See a good
etymological dictionary.
Richard Chambers
> Why is the word convertible and not convertable?
>
> Is there some rule?
> --
I am no expert, and I will be happy to be corrected by somebody who is, but
I believe that it might be something to do with Latin stems. These Latin
stems are still visible in the Spanish language, in which there are three
main categories of verb. Those whose infinitives end in -ar, -er and -ir.
I believe that most words coming to us from the Anglo-Saxon and other
Germanic roots will end in -able. Likeable. lovable, etc.
Words coming to us from the Latin, which today show the -ar form in Spanish,
will also have -able. e.g. amar --> aimiable.
If the modern Spanish verb has an infinitive ending in -er or -ir, then the
adjective in English will usually end in -ible. For example, converter
(Spanish verb) --> convertible.
Richard Chambers Leeds UK.
Peter Duncanson (BrE)
Lars Eighner
lovely and talented mm broadcast on alt.usage.english:
> Why is the word convertible and not convertable?
I suppose the "i" comes from the latin verb for "convert."
> Is there some rule?
I do not think there is a rule for word formation. There are a few spelling
rules of thumb for guessing "-ible" and "-able" for words you do not know,
but like most attempts to make sense of English spelling, the rules of
thumb fail sometimes, as in this case.
--
Lars Eighner <http://larseighner.com/> September 5925, 1993
304 days since Rick Warren prayed over Bush's third term.
Obama: No hope, no change, more of the same. Yes, he can, but no, he won't.
mm
<use...@larseighner.com> wrote:
>In our last episode, <9bldg5dgntivrctm0...@4ax.com>, the
>lovely and talented mm broadcast on alt.usage.english:
>
>> Why is the word convertible and not convertable?
>
>I suppose the "i" comes from the latin verb for "convert."
>
>> Is there some rule?
>
>I do not think there is a rule for word formation. There are a few spelling
>rules of thumb for guessing "-ible" and "-able" for words you do not know,
>but like most attempts to make sense of English spelling, the rules of
>thumb fail sometimes, as in this case.
Thanks to all of you, especially you and Richard.
I actually knew some of this stuff once. :)
mm
<ma...@peterduncanson.net> wrote:
>On Fri, 20 Nov 2009 10:13:11 -0800 (PST), contrex
><mike.j...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>>On 20 Nov, 17:44, mm <NOPSAMmm2...@bigfoot.com> wrote:
>>> Why is the word convertible and not convertable?
>>
>>Because of the Latin word which passed via French into English. The -
>>ible or -able endings can be traced right back to Latin. See a good
>>etymological dictionary.
>
>http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=convertible
And thank you, too.
BTW, my mother still called these cars roadsters.
And I never heard of a sleep-sofa called a convertible until I got to
NYC. Castro Convertibles.
And I never heard of convertible bonds until I had some mone.... Well
I'm still not sure exactly what they are. :)
Jerry Friedman
The Spanish verb is "convertir", but I believe the rest of what you
said is correct.
The Latin origin also controls -ation versus -ition, probably with
some exceptions.
--
Jerry Friedman
Cece
> On Fri, 20 Nov 2009 18:21:26 +0000, "Peter Duncanson (BrE)"
>
Some years ago, I found the answer in the office copy of M-W
Collegiate; I think it was the 7th edition. According to it, the
choice depends on whether the word came direct from Latin or traveled
through French on the way/is Germanic. IIRC. And I don't remember
which is which!
mm
<ceceliaa...@yahoo.com> wrote:
>On Nov 20, 12:46�pm, mm <NOPSAMmm2...@bigfoot.com> wrote:
>> On Fri, 20 Nov 2009 18:21:26 +0000, "Peter Duncanson (BrE)"
>>
>> <m...@peterduncanson.net> wrote:
>> >On Fri, 20 Nov 2009 10:13:11 -0800 (PST), contrex
>> ><mike.j.har...@gmail.com> wrote:
>>
>> >>On 20 Nov, 17:44, mm <NOPSAMmm2...@bigfoot.com> wrote:
>> >>> Why is the word convertible and not convertable?
>>
>> >>Because of the Latin word which passed via French into English. The -
>> >>ible or -able endings can be traced right back to Latin. See a good
>> >>etymological dictionary.
>>
>> >http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=convertible
>>
>> And thank you, too.
>>
>> BTW, my mother still called these cars roadsters.
>>
>> And I never heard of a sleep-sofa called a convertible until I got to
>> NYC. � Castro Convertibles.
>>
>> And I never heard of convertible bonds until I had some mone.... Well
>> I'm still not sure exactly what they are. �:)
>>
>> --
>Some years ago, I found the answer in the office copy of M-W
>Collegiate; I think it was the 7th edition. According to it, the
>choice depends on whether the word came direct from Latin or traveled
>through French on the way/is Germanic. IIRC.
>And I don't remember
>which is which!
You and I have a lot in common.
Gleb_Chebrikoff
no reliable rules can be drawn from word-formation,
which is largely a matter of convention and historical change. Thus,
-able (a productive suffix) freely combines with transitive verbs to
produce gradable adjectives, as in washable, drinkable, etc. The
suffix -ible (alongside -uble) is found in adopted words, and
passive relation can be found: convertible - that which can be
converted; this suffix is not productive in English, so the number
of adjectives with it is limited. The word convertible came to
English from Old French, from Latin convertibilis, from convertere
('turn about').
Respectfully, Gleb Chebrikoff
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Gleb_Chebrikoff: http://www.englishforums.com/user/bcpkc/profile.htm
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