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Jack

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Jan 28, 2013, 12:20:14 AM1/28/13
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Thanks to respondents on earlier, recent threads of mine.

I have a function f(x,k,t), where x>1, k >0 and t>1, and I get

lim_x --> oo f(x,k,t) = t.

Granted that f(x,k,t) can be expressed as a quotient involving x, k and t,
does it immediately follow, then, that

lim_k --> 0 f(x,k,t) = t

?

With thanks in advance.



William Elliot

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Jan 28, 2013, 12:33:09 AM1/28/13
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Of course not. Find some examples that show it doesn't follow.

Ken Pledger

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Jan 28, 2013, 2:38:35 PM1/28/13
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In article <hUnNs.110$1a3...@fx30.fr7>,
"Jack" <nomai...@hotmail.com> wrote:

> .... I have a function f(x,k,t), where x>1, k >0 and t>1, and I get
>
> lim_x --> oo f(x,k,t) = t.
>
> Granted that f(x,k,t) can be expressed as a quotient involving x, k and t,
> does it immediately follow, then, that
>
> lim_k --> 0 f(x,k,t) = t ....


Only if there's some link between x and k, making one of them
decrease suitably while the other increases. Have you posted the
_whole_ problem? Would it help to reveal the actual function f ?

Ken Pledger.
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